Ok, I have my ideas on this question, but I'd like to hear what all of my faithful (and unfaithful) readers think on the subject.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1
My question is this: Why did God use the word Word there?
John penned the Gospel under the insipration of the Holy Ghost. John wrote it in the Greek language, and the one Greek word that almost everybody knows is this word, logos. That word, logos, carries with it the idea of 'reason' as well as 'word' as it is most accurately and perfectly translated in the King James Bible. We get our word 'logic' from it.
So, when God the Son incarnated, took on human flesh, He was given the title "Word." He could have been given any title, and in fact He was given many titles, but why this one? John thought it important enough (under inspiration) to repeat it in His 1st Epistle.
What does it mean that Jesus, God the Son, is and always was, the Word?
10 comments:
You know that I do not buy into the Greek thing. God inspired my English Bible. How do I know it is inspired? When I place my Bible on my lap am I not placing the Scriptures on my lap? Well then, ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY INSPIRATION OF GOD...(2 Tim 3:16) Therefore my King James Bible is the INSPIRED word of God.
Now, to answer the question...let's assume that the Greek Lectionary from which you are getting your definition of "Word" (you should be getting English definitions from English dictionaries by the way) from is correct. (You cannot know that they are...dictionaries and lectionaries are often error filled) But let's assume you're right. Jesus is the Word which not only shows his connection with the word of God, but if "logic" is a part of the defition, then it makes sense that Jesus is called the Word because he is also called Wisdom. (Pro 8:12-36)
(Isa 1:18) Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool.
Jesus is the Word, the "logical" solution to any problem. I could have gotten that out of my English Bible without "Greek" or a "dictionary".
My beloved brother, do not let Greek class remove your faith in the INSPIRED King James Bible that sits in your lap.
I should not have captilized "Wisdom"...so forgive my error please
"Because Christ is to us what our words are to others. Our words reveal to others just what we think and how we feel. Christ reveals to us the mind and heart of God. He is the living means of communication between God and men. To know Jesus Christ is to know God."
The Bible Exposition Commentary
Andy, i always thought of this as God using a little 'logic' with us as He explains in the Bible that Jesus is God and has been God from the beginning of time.
however, i also like the use of Word here as the name of Jesus. it reminds me that
A. What God speaks (His Word) He does. Everything that God speaks is fulfilled by Himself (Jesus) and
B. We know that God fulfills His promises to us and in the Old Testament God promises us (gives His word) that he will send us a Savior, again Jesus.
So God keeps His word, by sending us The Word. always thought that was a cool way of looking at it...
and Seth, not sure about your logic there about English vs. Greek... Andy has some good posts and discussion on the King James Bible, but you can't dismiss the original inspired languages.
Hello Matt. Greetings in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ. I do not have any issues with the Greek TR or the Masoretic OT...for they are inspired. I do, however believe that my King James Bible is inspired and therefore feel no need to go back to Greek. It is like this: if I wanted to be a master Cake baker, I would not spend time learning how to bake Pies...I would bake Cakes. Likewise, I know and read English which is where God preserved his word. Therefore in order to be efficient in the word of God, I must be efficient in English. If I am to master Engish, I would not practice Greek in order to do that. So I dismiss Greek because it is not needful, not because I hate it or that I feel the TR is not inspired. The lectionaries, on the other hand I do have a problem with. Check out some of Gail Riplinger's work. Maybe it will interest you. God bless.
so if God spoke in pie, and you translated it cheesecake when he really meant mincemeat...? j/k.
i understand what you are saying seth, it's just that a+b does not equal c in your logic.
none of the translators of the KJV claimed to be inspired by God. (i've read works by several of them) They were inspired by love of God, fear of King James, etc. etc. however, it is the BEST english translation and the Bible in english is the inspired word of God, but there can be no perfect translation unless God inspires the translator (i submit that with the canon being closed after Revelations was written that God has not inspired any holy writers since). God preserved his Word in greek and hebrew for a much longer period of history than he has preserved it in english if my addition and subtraction are right.
if the english KJV bible was translated to chinese would it then be the inspired word of God that has been preserved? why then is english the 'chosen' language? if you were translating the Bible into chinese (or pick a language) wouldn't it be much more accurate to translate from greek to chinese than from greek to english to chinese? it's like that 'pass-it-along' game you play as kids... something is lost in the translation unless you can claim that every translator translating to a different language from the KJV is inspired by God. (or is unqualified and a heretic) kind of scary either way...
Though clearly off the subject of the initial post at this point :)
Matt, I have to disagree with your statement that "there can be no perfect translation unless God inspires the translator." I do not believe that to be true.
You can perfectly translate one simple sentence from one language to another, so then why not a whole paragraph, and if you can do a whole paragraph, why not the whole chapter...
ha yeah the subject has changed a little huh? sorry about that...
andy, i think we've disagreed/ discussed that point before... and i agree that simple word/ simple sentence argument... but since when is greek simple? there are 'X' number of words for love in greek all with a slightly different meaning, however, in my KJV all there is are love, and charity. so in order to convey the meaning of the greek i either need to add a word (or words), or know the greek to understand what is meant...
also, what do you think about my comment of english as the 'chosen' language, and the more accurate translation method of going back to the original? i don't think we discussed that before.
Language is a complex issue - of course. How would you explain the 'contradiction' in the Greek in John 21:15-17 where Jesus asks Peter, do you "agape" me? He asks the 2nd time, do you "agape" me? He asks the 3rd time, do you "phileo" me? But the English said that three times he asked do you "love" me. Seems Jesus thought the nuiances between agape and phileo are not as great as we try to make them - that's my opinion.
I do think it's helpful to know the Greek, I don't argue that. But I still think translation can be perfect.
To your last question, if you want to make a translation into Pig Latin, I would recommend you take whatever Pig Latin translation there is, compare it to the Greek and Hebrew, compare it to the KJV, and maybe even check out what other translations exist in languages that are close to Pig Latin and consult them as well.
Ok... I cheated... that's essentially the translation method of the KJV. I do think it is logically sound though.
ok. i think this is the point that we left our discussion last time... i am as satisfied as i was before;)
Post a Comment